Scholarly editions of Shakespeare's works always discuss real or potential sources for the plots and other aspects of a play or poem. Shakespeare invented very few plots and used sources such as Thomas North's translation of Plutarch's Lives, Arthur Golding's translation of Ovid's Metamorphoses, Matteo Bandello's stories and Holinshed's Chronicles of England, Scotland, and Ireland. For Italian sources, it is not always clear whether Shakespeare used the original Italian text, a French translation or an English translation that was later lost (e.g. in the case of Cinthio as a source for Othello).
The most frequent settings of Shakespeare's plays are England, Rome (or the Roman Empire) and contemporary Italy. Spain or Spanish literature does not appear to have a great appeal for Shakespeare. Only one play, Love's Labour's Lost in set in Spain, and after reading scholarly editions of Shakespeare's plays, I can't remember a single Spanish source with the exception of lost Cardenio, which was likely based on an episode from Cervantes's Don Quijote. In a lecture published in 1922 (Shakespeare and Spain), Henry Thomas said,
Of late years Shakespeare's possible Spanish sources have been diligently investigated, with but little result; indeed, many of the 'discoveries' dealt with above may seem hardly worthy of serious treatment.
This book is almost a hundred years old now and a lot of additional research has been done since 1922, including research on sources. Hence my question: is there any evidence that Shakespeare ever used a Spanish source for any of his plays? I am specifically looking for evidence that Shakespeare would have read Spanish source in Spanish rather than a translation.
This question was inspired by two comments by Peter Shor. The first comment read,
The simplest explanation is that he read Latin, French, Spanish, and Italian fluently. I expect the idea that he didn't comes from the Anti-Stratfordians, who didn't want to believe that a commoner could have produced the greatest works in the English language, as well as Johnson's quote "small Latin and less Greek", which I would say was a metonym for having had no formal schooling beyond grammar school.
The second comment:
I think it is pretty well established that Shakespeare could read Italian, French, and Latin. (He put French bilingual puns in his plays — how could he have done that without knowing French well?) Knowing these Romance languages, it would have been fairly easy for him to learn Spanish.
I don't subscribe to any of the anti-Stratfordian conspiracy theories that Peter Shor mentions in his first comment, but the fact that Shakespeare knew Latin, French and (probably) Italian does not imply that he actually learnt Spanish. Evidence for Shakespeare's knowledge of Spanish would need to be provided by finding Spanish sources that were not available in translation when Shakespeare wrote the plays that were inspired by them.