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"The Day of Doom" has been described as America's first bestseller, but can that be attributed to the above-average literacy rate among Puritans and in America overall? Would this poem have been less successful in Seventeenth-Century England, as the literacy rate there was very low? I do concede that I don't know for a fact if there was an above-average literacy rate in America at the time of the poems release, so clarification on this would also be appreciated.

Edit: Could "The Day of Doom" been as successful if it were published at the same time, but in the UK, as at that time the literacy rate in Great Britain was poor among the common folk.

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