5

Is there any significance in Shakespeare's use of "Laertes" (name of the father of Odysseus) in Hamlet?

Do we associate the name with The Odyssey more strongly than Shakespeare, to whom it was just an available name with a nice ring to it?

If there is a connection, what is it?

-1

My guess is that it had a nice ring to it, though maybe Shakespeare was making a subconscious or conscious connection.

  • The salient connection I find is that Polonius, like Odysseus, is a bit of a trickster.

Odysseus was renowned for his cleverness specifically. He would do things that were dishonorable (such as murdering enemies in their sleep) and still receive the favor of the gods. Polonius spies on people and uses his daughter to manipulate Hamlet.

Laertes is the son of Polonius, not the father, so maybe that has something to do with the inverted fate of Polonius compared to Odysseus.

Both Laertes are sympathetic characters.

  • 1
    Polonius, though, doesn't seem so favoured by the gods as Odysseus: he comes to a famously sticky end. – Rand al'Thor Jan 27 at 13:09
  • @Randal'Thor from a post-modern standpoint, I might suggest that Shakespeare's inversion of the relationship indicates Polonius' alternate fate (compared to Odysseus;) – DukeZhou Jan 28 at 20:10

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.