Some Answered Questions was first published into English in 1908, but was "extensively retranslated" in 2014. Why was a retranslation needed?

I assume it has to do with the dual origin of the English and Persian interview notes, and the relative (un)reliability of the English source. That'd mean the new edition draws on both the Persian and English originals but I can't find any confirmation of this--and if it's so, why didn't they also retranslate the 1908 French version? It's a semi-authoritative religious text, so this sort of thing does matter.

  • This doesn't really feel like a literature question to me. There's no question about the actual literature here, simply just a re-translation. That's off-topic imo, so I've voted to close, but I'll wait and look at the community consensus on this. – fi12 Jan 21 '17 at 1:55
  • @fi12 The content and origin of the material is deeply related to the need for re-translation. I have guesses as to the reasons, but can't easily find confirmation for them. – BESW Jan 21 '17 at 1:57
  • I've got some ideas as well, but I've looked online a bit and can't find any support for them. My best thought would be that English has changed (somewhat) over a hundred years, so the updated version may best reflect those changes. That and the fact that perhaps a few minor revisions were made. Those are my only ideas. – fi12 Jan 21 '17 at 1:58
  • @fi12 I'd hope that the experts on the subject I'd like to attract wouldn't need to be walked through the context of the material, but I've added some mentions of the complexities of the origin. Hopefully that will prevent others from thinking it's a simple translation issue. (The fact it's a semi-authoritative religious text makes it all the more "about the actual literature." Try the forward to the new edition for a start at the reasons.) – BESW Jan 21 '17 at 2:01
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    I'm voting to leave open because this does indeed seem to be a question about literature. – Rand al'Thor Jan 21 '17 at 2:28

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