Some Answered Questions was first published into English in 1908, but was "extensively retranslated" in 2014. Why was a retranslation needed?
I assume it has to do with the dual origin of the English and Persian interview notes, and the relative (un)reliability of the English source. That'd mean the new edition draws on both the Persian and English originals but I can't find any confirmation of this--and if it's so, why didn't they also retranslate the 1908 French version? It's a semi-authoritative religious text, so this sort of thing does matter.