I'm writing a sequel to Jane Austen's Pride and Prejudice. Ideally I would like to find a way to historically accurately break the entail of Longbourn on Mr Collins so that the children of the sisters might inherit. Were there any loop holes? Or would it have been possible for someone (Mr Darcy for example) to buy the Estate directly off Mr Bennett or Mr Collins?

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    Related: Why don't Mr. Bennet's daughters get to inherit the Longbourn estate? (see the excellent answers from Gareth Rees and Jessica Woodhouse). – Rand al'Thor Dec 29 '20 at 20:19
  • You're probably looking for Writing. – muru Dec 29 '20 at 20:22
  • @muru: Really, this should be asked in the 18th century real property law stackexchange (which of course, doesn't exist). – Peter Shor Dec 29 '20 at 20:31
  • History Stack Exchange can cover historical law questions. – Mary Dec 29 '20 at 22:13
  • Hi and welcome to Literature Stack Exchange. This is an excellent place for questions about the meaning or the interpretation of literary works, but if you want historical law advice, this may not be the best place. If you would like your question to be migrated to History Stack Exchange, please click the flag button to ask a moderator to do this. (Migration is cleaner than simply reposting your question on a different Stack Exchange site.) – Tsundoku Dec 29 '20 at 22:44