I've always been curious about the precise phrasing of this line from Macbeth, spoken by the First Murderer:
Most royal sir, Fleance is 'scaped.
The meaning of this, and as far as I can tell the meter and rhythm, is exactly the same as:
Most royal sir, Fleance escaped.
Indeed it even sounds almost identical when spoken out loud, as would be the intention in a play. So why then does Shakespeare opt for the contraction 'scaped over escaped? It's not a common usage: he chose escaped in many other cases:
That has to-day escaped. I thank you all;
- Antony and Cleopatra
I spoke with some of the sailors that escaped the wreck.
- The Tempest
I wonder how the king escaped our hands.
- Henry VI Part III
He does use 'scaped just as commonly.
How 'scaped I killing when I cross'd you so?
- Julius Ceasar
Stephano, two Neapolitans 'scaped!
- The Tempest
But a careful read of these seems to suggest this is to maintain rhythm, because "escaped" is two syllables whereas 'scaped is one. But since "is scaped" is also two syllables, it's not necessary in Macbeth.
Is there any other reason why the contraction might be preferred in this instance?